UGC-NET is an exam directed by the National Testing Agency, twice a year, However, due to an unsolicited pandemic, it was accomplished once a year for two consecutive years i.e 2020 and 2021. The students, as well as teachers, glimpsed a significant hike in the level of questions asked by UGC-NET. They are undoubtedly in demand of students who comprehend every concept and can manage pressure within a restricted time frame. My friends, trust me gone are the days when you can clear the UGC net exam just by stuffing a few concepts. Now UGC-NET wants you to understand each idea so that only the well-deserved can qualify.
Question#1- What is the name of the score the student would get if the measurements were completely accurate and error‐free?
- I‐score
- Neutral score
- True score
- Z‐score
Correct Answer: ‐ I‐score
Explanation- This question is taken from the teaching and the aptitude chapter. The teacher evaluated the performance of the students by different means and different criteria. The name of the score the student would get if the measurements were completely accurate and error‐free is I‐score
Question#2- “Contagious” spreading of behaviours through imitation, is known as
- Random effect
- Ripple effect
- Scripted effect
- Norm effect
Correct Answer: ‐ Random effect
Behavioural contagious is a form of social contagion which spreads through the group. More prevalent in the young age group. In this, a person tries to imitate another person either his ideal or some socially famous personality like a hero or cricketer. It results in losing their own identity.
Question#3 — Given below are two statements
Statement I: In all interactions, a message is sent and a message is received. Sometimes teachers believe they are sending one message, but their voices, body language, choice of words, and gestures may communicate a different message.
Statement II: To deal with cyberbullying, parents should be encouraged to keep computers in a public room in the house.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Correct Answer:‐ Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Question #4 — Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A ‐ IV, B ‐ I, C ‐ II, D ‐ III
2. A ‐ I, B ‐ II, C ‐ III, D ‐ IV
3. A ‐ II, B ‐ III, C ‐ IV, D ‐ I
4. A ‐ III, B ‐ IV, C ‐ I, D ‐ II
Correct Answer:‐ A-IV, B ‐ I, C ‐ II, D ‐ III
Question#5- Which among the following are components of decision traps to illustrate what needs to be a possible evaluatory framework to monitor the learning process?
A. Overconfidence
B. Coaching
C. Frame blindness
D. Taking shortcuts
E. Persistent misconception
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A, C and D only
2. A, D and E only
3. B, D and E only
4. B, C and D only
Correct Answer:‐ A, C and D only Explanation- As we all know learning is not a one-night process. It takes time to learn and it has its own speed. It also varies from person to person. Some students perceive in a very short term and other students will take a longer time in understanding and comprehend the same question
Question#6 — The rationalistic mode of knowledge accepts the rules of
1. Legality
2. Manipulation
3. Logic
4. Authority
Correct Answer:‐ Legality
Rationalistic mode means that depends on the reasons ratchet then on the subjective views of a particular person.
Question#7- Which of the following reliability techniques are used in qualitative research?
A. Diachronic reliability
B. Quixotic reliability
C. Synchronic reliability
D. Holsti’s constant
E. Chronbach’s alpha
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A, B and C only
2. B, C and D only
3. C, D and E only
4. A, C and E only
Correct Answer:‐ A, B and C only Explanation- Quantitative studies- is a kind of research strategy in which we usually focus on the data and numbers rather than on theory as we do in qualitative studies.It is an objective approach and gives more emphasis on clear-cut precision and disseminated facts. The deductive argument, also deductive logic, is the process of reasoning from one or more statements to reach a logical conclusion. Deductive reasoning goes in the same direction as that of the conditionals and links premises with conclusions.
Question#8- Which of the following are the essential characteristics of the case study method?
A. Negatively oriented
B. Appreciation oriented
C. Particularistic
D. Descriptive
E. Inductive
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A, B and C only
2. B, C and D only
3. C, D and E only
4. A, B and E only
Correct Answer:‐ A, B and C only
Explanation- The case study method is a form of qualitative analysis which means you have to do a very careful study and a deep observation to find out a theory, but here one thing is to remember that though we try to get a theory out of qualitative study it is not the only motive of a qualitative study. It is more than this.. It is a method of study in depth rather than breadth. It is a method in which a deep study of the same structure is organized to apply the outcome of the problem to get a solution.
Question#9- Given below are two statements
Statement I: Qualitative research is impressionistic and subjective.
Statement II: Quantitative research has a higher level of possibility of generalising the findings.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Correct Answer:‐ Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Explanation- The important aim of the research is not the development of a theory. It can be if it was qualitative research, in that we develop a theory however the research is not solely for the purpose of deriving a theory. Both facts and theory are important for doing the research. Type 1 error and type 2 error — are two types of errors that occurred while we do our research Type 1- A type I error (false-positive) occurs if an investigator rejects a null hypothesis that is true in the population; a type II error (false-negative) occurs if the investigator fails to reject a null hypothesis that is false in the population.
Question#10- Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A ‐ I, B ‐ II, C ‐ III, D ‐ IV
2. A ‐ IV, B ‐ I, C ‐ II, D ‐ III
3. A ‐ III, B ‐ IV, C ‐ I, D ‐ II
4. A ‐ II, B ‐ III, C ‐ IV, D ‐ I
Correct Answer:‐ A ‐ I, B ‐ II, C ‐ III, D ‐ IV
Question#11- A competent communicator is
A. Culturally neutral
B. Culturally sensitive
C. Totally ethical
D. Situationally ethical
E. An effective listener
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A, B and C only
2. B, C and D only
3. B, C and E only
4. C, D and E only
Correct Answer:‐ A, B and C only
Explanation- Competent communicators are beware of their own beliefs and ethical values, and are always conscious of their behaviours while communicating. They self-monitor their behaviour and always work in terms of improving it.
Question#12- Information provided before sending the primary message is known as
Question- Information provided before sending the primary message is known as
1. Intro
2. Indicator
3. Pre‐message
4. Feed forward
Correct Answer:‐ Intro
Question#13 — Given below are two statements
Statement I: People use non‐verbal cues more than verbal cues.
Statement II: Non‐verbal cues have better believability than spoken words.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Correct Answer:‐ Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Explanation- In these above types of questions what we have to do is we have to understand the meaning of each statement and then try to understand if both statements can make any sense and then here is a trick which can really help you while solving this type of question just put “Because” after reading the first given assertion. There is not any formula or magic trick which you can apply to solve these types of questions. With a deep understanding of concepts and by applying common sense and a little bit of presence of mind you can easily solve these types of questions.
Question#14- What number should replace the question mark — 48, 67, 78, ?, 789
1. 126
2. 89
3. 98
4. 146
Correct Answer:‐ 126
Question#15- A man weighs 75% of his own weight plus 39 lbs. How much does he weigh?
1. 165 lbs
2. 160 lbs
3. 156 lbs
4. 166 lbs
Correct Answer:‐ 165 lbs
Explanation (Try Solving Your self!)- Here is one example for your reference(A man weight 75% of his own + 19 Kg ). Assuming his weight = x So, x=0.75x+19 //His total weight being 75% of x + 19kg … lets solve the equation
x-0.75x=19 Then 0.25x=19 hence x=19/0.25 finally x=76 — And there you have it. His weight is 76 kg.
Question#16 — Ravi’s salary is increased by 20%. On the increased salary, the tax rate is 10% higher. The percentage increase in tax liability is
1. 20 %
2. 22 %
3. 23 %
4. 24 %
Question#17 — Given below are two statements
Statement I: A 60 m long train passes a 90 m platform in 10 seconds. The speed of the train is 45 km/hour.
Statement II: If the ratio of the speeds of A and B is a:b, then the ratio of the time taken by them to cover the same distance is a:b.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Correct Answer:‐ Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Question#18 — Answer the following statements
A. At a 5% rate of simple interest, a certain sum will be doubled in 15 years.
B. A sum becomes double in 10 years. The annual rate of simple interest is 12%.
C. ₹1000 will become ₹1331 in 3 years at a compound interest rate of 10% per annum.
Which of the above statements is/are CORRECT?
1. C only
2. A and C only
3. B and C only
4. A and B only
Correct Answer:‐ C only
Question#19- Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A ‐ I, B ‐ II, C ‐ III, D ‐ IV
2. A ‐ II, B ‐ III, C ‐ IV, D ‐ I
3. A ‐ III, B ‐ I, C ‐ II, D ‐ IV
4. A ‐ IV, B ‐ I, C ‐ III, D ‐ II
Correct Answer:‐ A ‐ I, B ‐ II, C ‐ III, D ‐ IV
Question#20- Name the fallacy committed in the argument
All dogs are mammals.
No cats are dogs. Therefore, no cats are mammals.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
1. Illicit Major
2. Illicit Minorfallacy
3. Undistributed Middle
4. Existential Fallacy
Correct Answer:‐ Illicit Major
Explanation- Fallacies are errors in arguments that deceive our minds. It is a defect in an argument that consists of something other than merely false premises. As we see, fallacies can be committed in many ways, but usually, they involve either a mistake in reasoning or the creation of some illusion that makes a bad argument appear good or bad (either). An argument is valid when the truth of the premises guarantees the truth of the conclusion. The process that gives no rational grounds for accepting the conclusion is a defective form of an argument known as a fallacy. Fallacies can be used positively, to avoid or expose error or they can be used for negative means, to deceive.
Question #21- From the options given below, pick the CORRECT sequence in the context of constituent parts of inference
1. Hetu, Udāharaṇa, Nigamana, Upanaya, Pratijña
2. Nigamana, Hetu, Udāharaṇa, Upanaya, Pratijña
3. Pratijña, Hetu, Upanaya, Udāharaṇa, Nigamana
4. Pratijña, Hetu, Udāharaṇa, Upanaya, Nigamana
Correct Answer :‐ Hetu, Udāharaṇa, Nigamana, Upanaya, Pratijña
Question#22- The example ‘sound is eternal because it is caused’ represents which of the following Hetvabhasa ‘
1. Ashrayāsiddha
2. Svarūpāsiddha
3. Viruddha
4. Kālātita
Correct Answer:‐ Ashrayāsiddha
Question#23 — Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A: A good computer networking solution can be very much beneficial for your business.
Reason R: With computer networking, you can cut back on costs and allow for efficient use of resources.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true
Correct Answer:‐ Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Question#24 — Arrange the following optical storage devices in increasing order of their storage capacity.
A. DVD
B. CD‐ROM
C. Blu‐Ray
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A, B, C
2. B, A, C
3. A, C, B
4. B, C, A
Correct Answer:‐ A, B, C
Explanation- DVD has the minimum storage capacity in the above-given options.
Question#25 — Given below are two statements
Statement I: Tablet computers have touch screens.
Statement II: A tablet computer has a keyboard.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Correct Answer:‐ Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Explanation- As explained earlier, in some questions you only have to apply common sense and your 2 marks are in your hands.
Question#26- Which of the following statements about desktop and laptop computers are TRUE?
A. Most modern laptop computers have built‐in webcams
B. Desktop computers are not very portable
C. All desktop computers have a built‐in touchpad
D. Laptop computers are rarely supplied with a mouse
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A, B and C only
2. A, B and D only
3. B, C and D only
4. A, B, C and D
Correct Answer:‐ A, B and D only
Explanation- these three statements — Most modern laptop computers have built‐in webcams, Desktop computers are not very portable, and All desktop computers have built‐in touchpads is false.
Question#27 — Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A ‐ I, B ‐ IV, C ‐ II, D ‐ III
2. A ‐ II, B ‐ IV, C ‐ I, D ‐ III
3. A ‐ II, B ‐ IV, C ‐ III, D ‐ I
4. A ‐ III, B ‐ II, C ‐ I, D ‐ IV
Correct Answer:‐ A ‐ I, B ‐ IV, C ‐ II, D ‐ III
Question#28- If the wind speeds increase from 4.0 m/s to 5.0 m/s, the power output from an ideal windmill will increase by a factor of about
1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5
Correct Answer:‐ 2
Explanation- Power output is calculated as follows: power = [(air density) times (swept area of blades) times (wind speed cubed)] divided by 2. The area is in meters squared, air density is in kilograms per meter cubed and wind speed is in meters per second.
Question# 29 — In which year did the first commitment period of the Kyoto Protocol come to an end?
1. 2011
2. 2012
3. 2014
4. 2008
Correct Answer:‐ 2011
Question #30 — Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A ‐ II, B ‐ III, C ‐ IV, D ‐ I
2. A ‐ III, B ‐ I, C ‐ IV, D ‐ II
3. A ‐ III, B ‐ I, C ‐ II, D ‐ IV
4. A ‐ I, B ‐ III, C ‐ II, D ‐ IV
Correct Answer:‐ A ‐ II, B ‐ III, C ‐ IV, D ‐ I
Question# 31- Which one of the following Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) is related to sustainable consumption and production patterns?
1. SDG 9
2. SDG 10
3. SDG 11
4. SDG 12
Correct Answer:‐ SDG 9
Explanation- The energy which is obtained from natural resources like wind, tides, solar, biomass, etc are called non-conventional sources of energy. These are pollution-free and hence we can use these to produce a clean form of energy. Therefore greater use of the non-conventional source of energy should be promoted.
Question#32 — What fraction (%) of the total primary energy used in India is derived from biomass?
1. ~ 32%
2. ~ 42%
3. ~ 56%
4. ~ 22%
Correct Answer:‐ ~ 32%
Explanation- Biomass energy — When plants and animal material is used as fuel to produce electricity or heat is called biomass energy. bio means living being and mass means material so energy is obtained by using the mass of living beings (plants and animals) is called biomass. example — wood, corn, soybean, crop residues, and organic waste. We can burn biomass directly to produce heat and electricity and can be easily converted to liquid fuel and gas through the process of fermentation and anaerobic digestion. Biomass Is an important source of renewable energy that is gaining importance in developed countries for electricity and transportation. Biomass such as municipal waste and cattle manure is used to produce methane through anaerobic digestion.
Question#33 — What does NIRF stand for?
1. National Institute of Ranking Federation
2. National Institute of Ranking Framework/
3. National Institutional Ranking Framework
4. National Institutional Ranking Federation
Correct Answer:‐ National Institute of Ranking Federation
Question#34 — The term ‘open learning’ represent approaches that focus on
A. Opening access to education and training provision
B. Freeing learners from the constraints of time and place
C. Learning and evaluation without a specified curriculum
D. Offering flexible learning opportunities to individuals and groups of learners
E. Making students free from any educational loads Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A, B and C only
2. A, B and D only
3. A, B and E only
4. B, C and D only
Correct Answer:‐ A, B and C only
Explanation- Opening access to education and training provision, Freeing learners from the constraints of time and place, Learning and evaluation without a specified curriculum.
Question# 35- In CBCS, Ability Enhancement Courses are of two kinds. They are:
A. Ability Enhancement Compulsory Courses
B. Skill Enhancement Compulsory Courses
C. Ability Enhancement Elective Courses
D. Skill Enhancement Elective Courses
E. Skill Enhancement Courses
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A and B only
2. A and C only
3. A and D only
4. A and E only
Correct Answer:‐ A and B only
Question#36 — Which of the following is a private university?
1. Anna University
2. BITS Pilani
3. Burdwan University
4. IIIT Correct
Answer:‐ Anna University
Question#37- India has been attracting only a fraction of international students because of
A. Lack of residential accommodation for foreign students
B. Difficulties in recognition of international qualification
C. Rigid admission process
D. Lack of enthusiasm among teachers
E. Lack of enthusiasm among students
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
1. A and B only
2. B and C only
3. C and D only
4. D and E only
Correct Answer:‐ A and B only
Question#38 — Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
A global light pollution map developed by a group of researchers has ranked New Delhi, Kolkata and Bengaluru as the three cities with the highest light pollution in India. It should serve to alert us to the looming problem of light pollution about which we are not only doing so little to prevent but are also unaware about. Light pollution refers to the harmful impact of artificial outdoor lighting. While artificial outdoor lighting is needed in the form of street lights it increases safety on roads and enables us to study and work in the dark, its use for floodlighting, illumination, advertising, etc has grown manifold in recent decades, resulting in the problem of light pollution. Studies show that the brightness from outdoor lights has risen steadily across India over a 20 year period, with New Delhi, Telangana, Maharashtra, Karnataka and Uttar Pradesh showing a “very high light intensity pollution” rise between 1993 and 2013. The use of excessive artificial outdoor lighting has several harmful implications not just for human health but for the wellbeing of animals, birds, insects and our environment. Use of artificial lights at night gives us more working and studying hours but it results in the problem of ‘loss of night.’ We find it difficult to fall asleep when the glow of streets enters our homes. It impacts our sleep‐wake rhythm, which could have serious implications for our moods and health. Illumination of gardens impacts animals and insects too. It is nocturnal insects and birds that suffer the most due to light pollution. It makes them disoriented, impacts their reproduction and thus their populations.
Read More — Tricks To Solve Paper 1 Reading Comprehension UGC NET Exam (ugcnetpaper1.com)
Question#39 — The light pollution map is related to the adverse effects of
1. Sunlight
2. Outdoor artificial light
3. Urban electricity projects
4. Rural electricity projects
Correct Answer:‐ Sunlight
Question# 40- One of the major pollutants is in the form of
1. Indoor lights
2. Street lights
3. Home lights
4. Illuminated advertising
Correct Answer :‐ Indoor lights
Question#41 — Light pollution intensity refers to
1. Increased outdoor brightness during nighttime
2. Manifold hike in the use of electricity in rural areas
3. Use of artificial light for road safety
4. More and more use of electricity in urban areas
Correct Answer:‐ Increased outdoor brightness during nighttime
Question#42 — Excessive hours of artificial light adversely impact our
A. Work schedule
B. Sleep cycle
C. Study hours
D. Moods and health
Question- Choose the correct answer from the options given below
1. A and B only
2. B and C only
3. B and D only
4. C and D only
Correct Answer:‐ A and B only
Question#43 — The loss of the night, as mentioned in the passage, will lead to
1. More human productivity
2. Increase in education
3. The altered activities of nocturnal creatures
4. The well‐being of the human population
Correct Answer:‐ More human productivity
Question-Based on Data Interpretation
Based on the data in the table, answer the questions that follow The following table presents the percentage breakup of employees and the ratio of male to female employees working in five different organisations (A to E). There is a total number of 35,000 employees working in all five organisations.
Read — Solving Tricks | Data Interpretation NET EXAM | Updated 2021 (ugcnetpaper1.com)
Question#46- The total number of employees in Organisation C is approximately what percent of the total number of employees in Organisation D?
1. 147 %
2. 312 %
3. 207 %
4. 183 %
Correct Answer:‐ 147 %
Question#47 — What is the total number of males in all the five organisations together?
1. 13350
2. 14700
3. 15960
4. 16280
Correct Answer:‐ 13350
Question #48 — What is the ratio of the number of males in Organisation A to the number of males in Organisation C?
1. 18:31
2. 9:31
3. 7:27
4. 9:19
Correct Answer:‐ 18:31
Question#49- What is the difference between the number of females in Organisation E and the number of females in Organisation B?
1. 210
2. 350
3. 170
4. 300
Correct Answer:‐ 210
Question#50- What is the sum total of the number of females in Organisation D and the number of males in Organisation E?
1. 4375
2. 4475
3. 4500
4. 4875
Correct Answer:‐ 4375